Following the (un)civil war the southern states could not be enticed to 'voluntarily' return to Washington. They were encouraged to do so at the point of a bayonet. So there is not 'the same' federal government. There is ONLY the emancipated federal government and its constitution IS the 14th amendment.
A house may still stand but is vacant.
I hope not the way YOU spelled it. Tell me ... why is $346,681,016 (the debt of the U.S. government funding the (un)civil war) unchanged since 1878?
You did know that the function of an amendment is to AMEND didn't you? And where is the prohibition on an amendment AMENDING to such an extent that the original rules are no longer valid?
Nonsense. Using this logic when prohibition was repealed all legislation incorporated in the statutes would also have been repealed because this legislation was tainted with prohibition era politics. After stating this I am now prepared for YOU to twist what I wrote into something I never intended .. which is what you seem to do frequently.
Why is DUE PROCESS repeated in the 14th amendment when it is incorporated in the organic constitution? What effect does a notice that you will not pay 'insurgent' debts have 3 years after the war ended? What 'insurgent' debt might have been intended? (BIG HINT ... Look around the world and find out where ALL the debt of the world has been concentrated)
I am less concerned with looking less foolish than appearing to be NICE!

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