Quote Originally Posted by ziero0 View Post
Was the land taken within the EXTERIOR boundary of the State or the INTERIOR boundary? If a Spanish land grant then the land was never within Texas or the U.S. of A. In this condition neither Texas nor the Supreme Court has any say. Best complain to the Spanish crown.
If that family has had title to that land since before Mexico, The Republic of Texas or the U.S. of A. existed you may be correct. How can the Southern District of Texas take a way private property from a citizen of the State of Texas? Their jurisdiction is supposedly coexistent with that of Congress. Eminent domain an international border?